Many have written about this subject, Women in The Bible, and Women in God's Church. However, few seem to present a thorough study from the Bible perspective, along with Strong’s Concordance and the original Greek usage of certain words. Those who want to say that women have no right to speak in a public church building will use 1 Cor.14:34-35 for proof of their argument. But let us take a close look at the scriptures often used by these people.

 

Paul, in establishing order in the early church, and in the context of confusion that was developing in the Gentile church services in Corinth said, "Let your women keep silence in the churches; for it is not permitted unto them to speak, but they are commanded to be under obedience, as also saidth the law. And if they will learn anything, let them ask their husbands at home; for it is a shame for women to speak in the church." 1 Cor. 14:34-35

 

Researching this topic in Strong's Concordance, I find the word "speak" as used here, in the orig. Greek has nothing to do with speaking under inspiration, or of prophesying. The word used is laleo = defined: to speak, talk, preach, etc, but then an additional reference is given to another number which defines this word in this particular usage, and says: laleo = an extended or random harangue, ask, bid, boast, call, etc."

 

This then, was not a direct reference by Paul toward an inspired female speaker, or one speaking in an orderly fashion, but women who were randomly haranguing, questioning and interrupting the order of services to quarrel and in a disorderly manner discuss doctrines of the church.

 

This is further attested to in Haley's Bible Handbook (pg.535). "Paul here forbids, (1 Cor.14:34) what he seems to allow in 1 Cor. 11:5. There must have been some local circumstances, unknown to us, that gave point to these instructions. Possibly some very bold women, converted temple prostitutes maybe, were putting themselves forward..."

 

1 Tim. 2:11-12 Paul says: "Let the woman learn in silence with all subjection. I do not permit a woman to teach, nor usurp authority over the man, but to be in silence..."

 

Strong's Concordance: a)silence = desist from bustle and language b) silent = close, secret, hold peace c) subjection = to subject one's self to obey d) teach = teach, (as to) learn e) usurp = and authority = (same def. given for both words) to act of oneself, to dominate.

 

The words “usurp authority” as used in 1 Timothy 2:12 is Strong’s #831 in the Greek and is the word “Authenteo” or “Authentein” and is of a sexual connotation having to do with Temple Worship, Temple Prostitution and Temple abortion of children in other words murder of children. We will try to print something in regard to this in the future. Laura Lee

 

These words show a woman should learn without noisome bustling and/or chatter (talking), and refrain from interrupting while learning. She should not dominate, or take to herself authority over a man who has authority. Could this scripture not equally apply to anyone--men, as well as women--who does not have a position of authority? It clearly instructs women of non-authority not to "usurp" (take of one's self the authority) over one who already has authority.

 

So--according to the original Greek usage, Paul--in both places--is simply telling the unruly, noisy, and rude women to be quiet and listen to those men who had the authority to teach, not haranguing, interrupting, asking questions in a disorganized way. He was telling them: if they did not understand, they were to wait until they got home and ask their husbands (who were also in attendance) to explain what had been taught.

 

It makes no sense at all for a woman who has been a Bible student for many years, converted and growing by the power of God's holy spirit, to go home and ask an unconverted (and possibly hostile) husband questions about spiritual matters if he is unconverted. Paul could not have been speaking to inspired women or women with unconverted mates! It was (is) only to women who try to cause discord or disruption that Paul addresses in 1 Cor. 14:34.

 

Acts 1:14-15 shows there were 120 members during the early church--both women and men gathered together. Acts 2:1, 4 shows them observing the Day of Pentecost when they were all filled with the holy spirit (both men and women) and spoke, during the observance of this Holy Day, in many foreign languages. Did not women also receive the holy spirit? Did God allow only men to receive this gift? Did he make a difference in the sexes?

 

Paul in Gal. 3:28 answers this, "there is neither Jew nor Greek, neither slave nor free, there is neither male, nor female; for you are all one in Christ Jesus..."

 

Anna was called a prophetess. The original word used here, from Strong's Concordance says: prophetis = fem. of prophetes (a male prophet, and inspired speaker, a poet, etc) = and means; a female foreteller or an inspired woman.

 

So... this shows Anna was a female prophet (prophetess) who spoke under inspiration in the then known and accepted church (temple). Since her long and inspired speech was preserved in the scriptures, she must have had God's approval to "speak" in church.

 

Of course, some may say: Anna was an old woman and lived during the time before the new church was established. Another argument is: the office of "prophetis" has been dropped, voiding the office of the female "prophetis". Accepting this to be true, it has no bearing on the words Paul used in reference to the virgins who prophesied, the women who were to cover their heads when they prophesied, nor when he said, "greater is he (she?) that prophesieth...", etc. The word he uses is not from "prophetes" (which is the orig. Greek word used when referring to a particular person - (usually from the Old Testament) but from either "prophetia" or "propheteuo" which is defined as: "prediction--from scripture or otherwise--foretell events, divine, speak under inspiration, and exercise the prophetic office."

 

So, Paul was talking of another type of "propheteuo", or prophesying (prophetia) which was distinctly different than the one used in reference to prophets in the Old Testament.

 

Acts 21:9 speaks concerning the new church era. An evangelist, Phillip, had four virgin daughters who did "prophesy". Here again, the word used is: "propheteuo" and means = to foretell events, an inspired speaker, to exercise the prophetic office. Here were four women who were in the office of prophetesses who were inspired to foretell events or speak (expound).

 

There are examples, in the Bible, where God used women to lead men.

 

 

If a woman--just as a man--has been growing by the power of God's holy spirit for many years, yet has not acquired spiritual wisdom and discernment and the ability to advise younger converts--whether it be man or woman--there is something seriously wrong with her spiritual condition. Yet, this is denied to women, as a whole, due to lack of understanding by the leaders of many churches.

 

The Bible records many ways God used women to fill offices of authority, and shows them making decisions that effected whole nations and the lives of people hundreds of years into the future. Paul instructs that she is not to be the leader over a husband, but God has allowed her certain privileges: a) To be co-ruler with her husband in her home, b) to also have the gift of the holy spirit, and c) to have the freedom to prophesy, that is to exercise the prophetic office and share her spiritual knowledge with others according to Strong's Concordance: prophet: to fortell events, and be an inspired speaker, to exercise the prophetic office.

 

Titus 2:3-4 actually instructs older women to be teachers of good things, teaching young women to be sober minded....etc. And we know women are to teach their children. But, in view of the scriptures above, can this imply inspired women can ONLY teach younger women and children?

 

The only way these scriptures can be used with no contradiction is to determine WHEN, and/or WHY a woman is to speak, and/or is to be silent. Is not the answer simply: She is not to overrule a (speaker) man or any person in authority during worship services? If and when she is not being inspired by God's holy spirit to prophecy (speak), she is to keep quiet, just as any person is to keep quiet when another inspired person is prophesying (speaking)? See 1 Cor. 14:30-31 which says: If any thing be revealed to another that sitteth by, let the first hold his peace. For ye may all prophesy one by one, that all may learn, and all may be comforted.

1. IF PAUL FORBADE A WOMAN TO SPEAK (SIMPLY BECAUSE OF HER SEX) DURING CHRUCH SERVICES--WHY WAS SHE TOLD TO COVER HER HEAD WHEN SHE PROPHESIED? The orig. Greek word used means the same as "prophet" (except for one being fem.-the other masc.) and both refers to the act of "edifying, exhortation, and comforting".

 

2. IF A WOMAN IS NOT PERMITTED TO SPEAK (under inspiration of the Holy Spirit) IN CHURCH, WHY DID PAUL INSTRUCT CHRISTIANS, "...RATHER TO PROPHESY..."? (1Cor.14:1), If so, why did God not make a distinction on the day of Pentecost? And how are women to know which spiritual instructions are denied to them and which ones pertain strictly to males?

 

3. IF ONLY A MAN IS QUALIFIED TO PROPHESY--WHY WAS THE SAME ORIGINAL GREEK WORD "PROPHETEOU" USED IN REFERENCE TO BOTH MEN AND WOMEN IN ACTS 2:18?

 

4. SINCE GOD RECOGNIZES CERTAIN WOMEN AS "PROPHETESSES"--AS WITH ANNA AND THE FOUR DAUGHTERS OF PHILIP--AND BY SAYING, "YOUR SONS AND YOUR DAUGHTERS SHALL PROPHESY" (PROPHETEOU) HOW CAN THERE BE A DISTINCTION? AND WHEN, IF NOT IN THE END TIME, ARE THEY TO DO THIS? We can be sure the daughters, virgins with neither husbands or children, were not restricted to learning from their husbands, nor were they prophesying to children and women only.

 

5. WHY IS IT THAT WHEN A WOMAN OFFERS TO "SPEAK" IN CHURCH IT IS CONSIDERED THAT SHE IS "USURPING AUTHORITY" AND NEVER ACCEPTED AS AN INSPIRED SPEAKER--BUT WHEN A MAN SPEAKS, IT IS TAKEN FOR GRANTED HE IS INSPIRED?

 

6. WHO CAN REFUTE THAT WOMEN OF BOTH THE OLD AND THE NEW TESTEMENT HAVE BEEN RECOGNIZED AS INSPIRED SPEAKERS--OR AS FEMAL PROPHETS--SUCH AS ANNA OR THE FOUR DAUGHTERS OF PHILIP? WHAT WOULD THE ATTITUDE BE TOWARD THESE LADIES IF THEY SHOULD BE A PART OF SOME CHURCHS TODAY? ARE WE TO DISREGARD THEIR EXAMPLES?

 

7. WHY HAVE NO FEMALE PROPHETS BEEN ENCOURAGED IN THE CHURCH TODAY? IS THERE A SCRIPTURE THAT SHOWS THE DISCONTINUATION OF WOMEN FILLING THE OFFICE OF A PROPHETESS OR A DEACONESS (MINISTER)?

 

8. KNOWING THAT DEACONS (MINISTERS) ARE QUALIFIED TO PREACH - (PROPHESY), AS SHOWN CLEARLY BY THE SERMON GIVEN BY THE DEACON (MINISTER) STEPHEN, IS THERE A BIBLCAL REASON WHY A DEACONESS (MINISTER) (fem. of the same Greek word of deacon) SHOULD NOT BE ACCEPTED TO PROPHESY?

 

9. IF DEACONS (MINISTERS) ARE QUALIFIED TO "PROPHESY" IN THE CHURCH, IN VIEW OF WHAT STRONG'S CONCORDANCE REVEALS, SHOULD NOT DEACONESSES (MINISTER) ALSO BE ENCOURAGED TO PROPHESY (TEACH)?

 

In addition to the scriptures discussed to this point, there are many other references to women that God used in both the Old Testament and the New Testament. Paul mentions several women who were actively involved in the ministry of the New Testament church. Rom. 16:1-16

 

Can we read Rom. 16 and conclude these women were denied speaking and/or prophesying? I think not!

 

The only way we can harmonize all of these scriptures is to accept that when Paul denied women the right to speak in church it was because there were mitigating circumstances that required that kind of correction for that particular situation. Otherwise, we have to conclude that Paul contradicted himself, and God has become a respecter of persons.

 

This is but a short study of a woman's place in God's Church. There are numerous scriptures that offer insights into how God used women's talents to serve his purpose. Religious leaders have often forgotten Christ's instruction to them in Mat.20:25-28: (25) But Jesus called them unto him, and said, Ye know that the rulers of the Gentiles lord it over them, and they that are great exercise authority upon them. (26) But it shall not be so among you: but whosoever will be great among you, let him be your servant; (27) And whosoever will be chief among you, let him be your slave: (28) Even as the Son of man came not to be served unto, but to serve, and to give his life a ransom for many.

 

Some religionists have assumed that they have the authority to determine how women are to use their God given talents in worship services. By so doing they ignore Gal. 3:28: There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither bond nor free, there is neither male nor female: for ye are all one in Christ Jesus.

 

When pastors or religious leaders insist that women have no right to use their God given talents in service to their congregation they have taken upon themselves the role of ruler instead of servant.